HRS - Ask. Learn. Share Knowledge. Logo

In Mathematics / High School | 2014-04-09

Is \(\frac{1}{\sec^2(\theta)}\) the same as \(\cos^2(\theta)\)?

Asked by Anonymous

Answer (2)

se c 2 θ 1 ​ = co s 2 θ L = ( cos θ 1 ​ ) 2 1 ​ = co s 2 θ 1 ​ 1 ​ = 1 : co s 2 θ 1 ​ = 1 ⋅ 1 co s 2 θ ​ = co s 2 θ = R

Answered by Anonymous | 2024-06-10

Yes, s e c 2 ( θ ) 1 ​ is the same as cos 2 ( θ ) . This is derived from the definition of secant as the reciprocal of cosine. Thus, both expressions are equivalent.
;

Answered by Anonymous | 2024-10-01